Đề Tiếng Anh thi thử vào lớp 10 năm 2018 THPT chuyên Hà Nam (có đáp án)

 

ĐỀ TIẾNG ANH THI THỬ VÀO LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN HÀ NAM 2018

SỞ GD&ĐT HÀ NAM -------------- ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN Môn thi: Tiếng Anh – Đề chuyên Thời gian 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề (Đề thi gồm 07 trang; thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này)

 

SECTION A. PHONETICS (10 points)

Part I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced (8 points):

1.    A. tidal               B. sight                  C. mineral                  D. describe

2.    A. energy            B. generous           C. category                 D. suggest

3.    A. chemistry        B. kitchen             C. watch                      D. catch

4.    A. mutual            B. nature               C. capture                     D. nation

5.    A. looked             B. moved              C. gained                      D. prepared

6.    A. farmers            B. hats                  C. rooms                       D. prisons

7.    A. village              B. passage            C. teenage                    D. message

8.    A. few                   B. new                  C. threw                       D. knew

Part II.  Pick out the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words (2 points):

9.    A. admire                    B. honor                        C. title                          D. difficult

10.    A. comprise               B. correspond               C. compulsory              D. depend

SECTION B. LEXICO & GRAMMAR (35 points)

Part I. Give the correct tense/form of the verbs in brackets to complete these sentences (10 points):

a)    A: I (1. not see) ………………………..your brother recently.

B: He (2. not be) ………….out of his room since he (3. buy) …………………... a new  computer.

b)    While Mr. Brown (4. read) ……. a newspaper, his two children (5. listen) ….to an English song.

c)    My mother would rather I (6. not go) ………………….out late at night.

d)    My children enjoy (7. allow) ……………….(8. stay) …………..up late when there is something special on TV.

e)    I suggest (9. give) ……………..her a surprising party.

f)    She looks as if she (10.be)……………..very rich.

Part II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points):

1.   My brother can repair electric ……………………………..very well.    apply

2. We must learn about keeping the environment ………………………………..    pollute

3.  He was …………………….when he failed his driving test.    hope

4.  Mr. Smith is a ………………………..person. If he says he will do something, you know that he will do.    depend

5.  He left the room without …………………………………….    explain

6.  The ……………………of finding new oil reserves has been led to more drilling in the Gulf of Mexico necessary

7.   On a ……………………..day, we receive about fifty letters.    type

8.   I’m sorry about my …………………………., but I hate waiting.    patient

9.  There is a ……………………….of fruits in Vietnam.    vary10.    During his …………………, his family lived in the country.    child

Part III. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete these sentences (10 points):

1.    The room ………………… when I arrived.

A. was being cleaned    B. is cleaned      C. was cleaning             D. was cleaned

2.    The students are being made ………………… harder.

A. work                    B. worked               C. to work                      D. working

3. He told me ……………………………..

A. smoke cigarettes.                                B. smoking cigarettes.

C. not to smoke cigarettes.                      D. not smoking cigarettes.

4.    ………………… my father is old, he still goes jogging.

A.    Although           B. Because of               C. In spite of            D. Despite

5.    My grandfather died after he ………………… ill for a long time.

A.    had been            B. was                          C. has been               D. would be

6.    That is the ………………… interesting novel I’ve ever read.

A.    more                  B. so                             C. most                     D. very

7.    Some fish can survive in salt water,.………………… other species can live only in fresh water.

A.    where                 B. as long as                 C. whereas                D. since

8.    When you are in orbit, you will be able………….on the walls or on the ceiling like in the circus.

A.    to walk               B. walk                        C. walks                      D. walking

9.    …………………she starts at once, she will be late.

A.    If                        B. Unless                      C. Or                           D. When

10.    He left school ………………… his hard life.

A.    as if                    B. because                    C. because of               D. though

11.    The man over there is an artist ………………… father can speak four languages.

A.    who                    B. whose                      C. whom                       D. which

12.    I prefer ………………… whenever I have free time.

A.    watching TV to listening to music       B. watch TV to listen to music

C.    to watch TV than listening to music    D. watching TV to listen to music

13.    John gave up …………………stamps.

A.    collect                 B. to collect                 C. collected                   D. collecting

14.    Would you mind if I …………………the window?

A.    open                   B. to open                    C. opening                     D. opened

15.    It is high time we ………………… our house. It looks very old.

A.    repaint    B. to repaint    C. repainting    D. repainted

16.    I usually spend two hours ………………… English with my friends.

A.    practising           B. to practise              C. practises                       D. practised

17.    I don’t know how …………………this exercise. Could you do me a favor?

A.    do                      B. doing                      C. to do                              D. did

18.    Ba: Thank you very much for inviting me to the party.   - Lan : ………………….

A.    You are well.  B. You are welcome.  C. It’s very nice of you. D. That’s a good idea.

19.    Nam: I don’t like watching violent films. - Nga: …………………

A.    So do I.          B. I do, too.                C. I do, either.               D. Neither do I.

20.    What is her …………………? – “She is one meter and sixty centimeters tall.”

A.    high               B. height                    C. tall                             D. weight

Part IV: Identify the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C or D) in each sentence below that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct (5 points):

1. Almost all the students were confusing because Ms. Kelly’s explanation was unclear.

          A          B                                 C                                                                   D

2.   My parents don’t let me to go out without saying anything.

                                  A    B    C                          D

3.    The students were interesting in taking a trip to the National History Museum, but

                               A         B                            C

they were not able to raise enough money. 

                        D

4.   We didn’t go out because of the heavily rain.

                                    A    B    C    D

5.    This bed, where he used to rest on, is made of wood.

                           A              B                       C    D

SECTION C. READING (30 points)

Part I. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space (10 points):

Health is something we tend to (1) when we have it. When our body is doing well, we are  hardly (2) of it. But illness can come, even (3) we are young. In fact, childhood has been a very susceptible time. Many diseases attack children in particular, and people know very little (4) to cure them once they struck. The result was that many children died. About a century ago, (5), scientists found out about germs, and then everything changed. The (6) of many diseases was found, and cures were developed. As this medical discovery spread, the world  became (7) safer for children. The result is that (8)         a hundred years ago, the average man lived for 5 years, nowadays, in many areas of the world, people can (9) to live for 75 years. And what do we expect by the year 2020? Undoubtedly, medical science will continue to (10). Some people will be able to avoid medical problems that are unavoidable today.

Part II. Read the passage and do the following tasks (10 points):

The Washington Post is the largest and most circulated newspaper in Washington, D.C, USA, and is the city’s oldest newspaper, founded in 1877. It is widely considered to be one of the most important newspapers in the United States due to its particular emphasis on national politics, and international affairs, and being a newspaper of record. Even so, the Washington Post has always been defined as a local paper and does not print any editions for the outside region beyond that of the D.C, Maryland, or Virginia editions for daily circulation.

The newspaper is published as a broadsheet, with photographs printed both in color as well as in black and white. Weekday printings include the main section, containing the first page, national, international news, politics, and editorials and opinions, followed by the sections on local news (Metro), sports, business, style (feature writing on pop culture, politics, fine and performing arts, film, fashion, and gossip), and classified ads.

The Sunday edition includes the weekday sections as well as several weekly sections: Outlook (opinion and editorials), Style and Arts, Sunday Source, Travel, Book world, Comics, TV week, and the Washington Post Magazine. Beyond the newspaper, the Washington Post under its parent company of the Washington Post Company is involved with the Washington  Post,  Newsweek Interactive and Washingtonpost.com.

Choose the best answer A, B, C or D to answer the questions below:

1.    When was the Washington Post founded?

A. 1877                  B. 1787                   C. 1778                  D. 1887

2.    The Washington Post is ………………………… .

A.    the newest newspaper.                                    B. the oldest newspaper in the USA.

C. the oldest newspaper in Washington, D.C.        D. the sports newspaper.

3.    Why is the Washington Post the most important newspaper in the United States?

A.    Because of its particular emphasis on national politics, and international affairs.

B.    Because of its particular emphasis on national culture, and international affairs.

C.    Because of its particular emphasis on national sports, and international affairs.

D.    Because of its particular emphasis on national history, and international affairs.

4.    The photographs of the newspaper are mainly printed ………………….. .

A.  in white and black.       B. both in color as well as in black and white.

C.  in color.                        D. in bad quality of paper.

5.    Weekly sections of the Washington Post include ………………………. .

A.   Outlook (opinion and editorials).

B.   Sunday Source, Travel, Book world.

C.   Outlook (opinion and editorials), Style and Arts, Sunday Source, Travel, Book world, Comics, TV week, and the Washington Post Magazine.

D.   Comics, TV week, and the Washington Post Magazine.

Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F):

6.   The Washington Post is the newspaper that does not print any edition for the outside region beyond that of the D.C.

7. The Washington Post is the largest newspaper in the USA.

8.  Not many people in the world know about the Washington Post.

9. The Sunday edition only includes the weekday sections.

10. You will be able to find the Washington Post on the Internet.

Part III: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to complete the following passage (10 points):

Nicola Peet (1)… school at eighteen, went to college and then worked at a local airport.  After nine months, she went to work (2)… Saudi Arabian Airlines and then she joined British Airways as an air-hostess. Four years later, she got her present job as a manager.

This is (3)…… she told us about her job:

“My office is at Heathrow Airport, but I (4)… 60% of my time in the air, I teach air- hostesses and help them with any problems. I also go to a lot of meetings. My hours are usually from 8 am (5)… sometimes I work from 1 pm to 9 pm. At work, the first thing I do is to (6)… plane time on my computer and then I speak with some of the air-hostesses. Sometimes I go on long flights to check how the air-hostesses are doing. That is my favorite part of the job, but I like office work, too. (7)… can be a hard work. When I get back from a long (8)…, all I can do (9)… eating something and then going to bed! I don’t earn much (10)…, but I’m happy with British Airways  and want to stay there and continue to travel.”

SECTION D. WRITING (25 points)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it (10 points):

1.  I applied for the job but was turned down.

     My …………………………………………………………………………………..

2.  I hate people laughing at me.

     I ……………………………………………………………………………………..

3.   “You stole the jewels!” the inspector said to him.

     The inspector accused ………………………………………………………………

4.  Galileo is considered to be the father of modern astronomy.

     Galileo is regarded …………………………………………………………………..

5.  It’s not easy to do all this work in half an hour.  I find it …………………………...

6.  He started working for this company two years ago.

     He has ……………………………………………………………………………….

7.  I’ll be happy to give you a lift.

     I don’t mind …………………………………………………………………………

8.  James will ask the mechanic to repair his car.

 James will have…………………………………………………………………………

9.  Carter felt sick because he ate four cream cakes.

 If …………………………………………………………………………………………...

10.  I am sorry I was rude to you yesterday.

I apologize ………………………………………………………………………………

Part II. Rewrite the following sentences in such a way that has the same meaning with the given one using the suggested word. Do not change the given word in any way (5 points):

1.    Teddy regretted buying the second-hand TV. (WISHED)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

2.    “You’d better help your parents.”, Nga said to Ba.(advised)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

3.    I don’t intend to tell you my plans. (INTENTION)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

4.    Burning forests will lead to the destruction of wildlife habitat. (DESTROY)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

5.    We couldn’t go to school because it rained heavily. (PREVENTED)

…………………………………………………………………………………………..

Part III. Write a letter of about 150 words to tell the soldiers in the Truong Sa Islands about the recent changes in your home town / home village (10 points).

- THE END –

Trong khoảng thời gian 150 phút, các em hãy thử sức hoàn thành giải đề bài này sau đó tự đánh giá kết quả đạt được qua việc đối chiếu kết quả bài làm của mình với hệ thống đáp án dưới đây:

 

ĐÁP ÁN ĐỀ THI THỬ VÀO LỚP 10 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

THPT CHUYÊN HÀ NAM 2018

 

SECTION A. PHONETICS (10 points):

Part I.    Pick out the word whose underlined part is differently pronounced (8 points):

Part II.    Pick out the word that has the stress differently from that of the other words (2 points): 01 point /1 correct answer x 10 = 10 points

1. C     2. C    3. A    4. D    5. A    6. B    7. C    8. C    9. A    10. B

SECTION B. LEXICO & GRAMMAR (35 points):

Part I. Give the correct tense/form of the verbs in brackets to complete these sentences (10 points): 01 point /1 correct answer x 10 = 10 points

1. haven’t seen    2. hasn’t been    3. bought    4. was reading 5. were listening

6. didn’t go    7. being allowed    8. to stay    9. giving    10. were

Part II. Give the correct form of the words in brackets (10 points): 01 point /1 correct answer x 10 = 10 points

1. appliances   2. unpolluted  3. hopeless    4. dependable  5. explanation

6. necessity    7. typical    8. impatience  9. variety    10. childhood

Part III. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete these sentences (10 points): 0,5 point /1 correct answer x 20 = 10 points

1. A    2. C    3. C    4. A    5. A    6. C    7. C    8. A    9. B    10. C

11. B    12. A   13. D   14. D   15. D   16. A   17. C    18. B    19. D   20. B

Part IV: Identify the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C or D) in each sentence below that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct (5 points): 01 point/1 correct answer x 5 = 5 points

1. C    2. C    3. B    4. D    5. A

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