Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2024 môn Anh Hiệp Hòa 2

Thử sức với Đề thi thử tiếng Anh 2024 trường THPT Hiệp Hòa 2, Bắc Giang. Đây là những đề thi tốt nghiệp theo chuẩn đề thi tham khảo của Bộ GD với 50 câu hỏi với các dạng quen thuộc, kiến thức bám sát theo chương trình học phổ thông.

CẬP NHẬT: Đáp án đề thi THPT Quốc gia

Hãy thử sức ngay với đề thi thử thpt quốc gia 2024 này:

Đề thi thử tốt nghiệp 2024 môn Anh THPT Hiệp Hòa 2

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1.

A. discussion.

B. liveable

C. climate

D. city

Question 2.

A. watched

B. jogged

C. booked

D. developed

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 3.

A. father

B. cover

C. govern

D. perform

Question 4.

A. fantastic

B. perfection

C. fascinate

D. computer

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5. His poor standard of play fully justifies his ___________ from the team for the next match.

A. expulsion

B. rejection

C. dismissal

D. exclusion

Question 6. Sarah said she would like _________ Paris someday to see the Eiffel Tower.

A. visiting

B. visited

C. to visit

D. visit

Question 7. The company hopes that their new product ___________ by many customers.

A. was buying

B. buys

C. will be bought

D. will buy

Question 8. The manager is directly responsible __________ the efficient running of the office

A. about

B. at

C. in

D. for

Question 9. She has recently bought a new car, __________ ?

A. hasn’t she

B. did she

C. didn’t she

D. has she

Question 10. You are ____________ only person whose opinion is of any value to me in the present regrettable circumstances.

A. the

B. an

C. Ø

D. a

Question 11. The drug under examination has shown some _________ results when given to volunteers in some countries.

A. impressed

B. impresses

C. impression

D. impressive

Question 12. Jimmy always takes the _________ by the horns at every chance in order to become a famous pop star, which is why he is so successful now.

A. bull

B. horse

C. buffalo

D. cow

Question 13. Chemistry is ___________ than physics.

A. more easily

B. easily

C. easier

D. easy

Question 14. When preparing a CV, university ___________ can consider attaching a separate report about official work experience during the course.

A. leavers

B. graduates

C. candidates

D. applicants

Question 15. The website ____________ by the web developer is user-friendly and easy to navigate.

A. developing

B. develops

C. developed

D. is developing

Question 16. This ticket _____________ you to a free meal in our new restaurant.

A. credits

B. grants

C. allows

D. entitles

Question 17. Ngoc __________ in the kitchen when she saw a mouse.

A. has cooked

B. is cooking

C. cooks

D. was cooking

Question 18. John will start studying for the exam __________ .

A. until he is finishing his lunch

B. when he finishes his lunch

C. after he finished his lunch

D. before he finished his lunch

Question 19. In spite of their disabilities, the children at Spring School manage to ______ an active social life.

A. take

B. gather

C. save

D. lead

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 20. We should join hands to protect our environment.

A. work together

B. make decisions

C. take up

D. put up

Question 21. People in the mountainous areas are still in the habit of destroying forests for cultivation.

A. planting

B. wood

C. farming

D. industry

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 22. Unsurprisingly, almost every client gave negative feedback on that hotel due to their poor service.

A. almost

B. their

C. gave

D. on

Question 23. Their father was described as a good man, a careful

and loving father to his children and a considerate neighbor.

A. considerate

B. Their

C. as

D. careful

Question 24. Mai invites her classmates to her 18th birthday party last week.

A. party

B. invites

C. week

D. to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 25. Jack bought that second-hand car. He then recognized that he shouldn't have done that.

A. If only Jack hadn’t bought that second-hand car.

B. Jack wished that he did not buy that second-hand car.

C. Jack wished that he has not bought that second-hand car.

D. Jack regretted to buy that second-hand car.

Question 26. He was very surprised to be addressed by the Queen. He didn’t answer at once.

A. Not until he was so surprised to answer did the Queen address him.

B. So surprised was he to be addressed by the Queen that he didn’t answer at once.

C. Only when he was addressed by the Queen could he answer the surprising questions at once.

D. But for such a nice surprise, he would have been addressed by the Queen.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 27. Many women prefer to use cosmetics to enhance their beauty and make them look younger.

A. enrich

B. maximize

C. improve

D. worsen

Question 28. I think we cannot purchase this device this time as it costs an arm and a leg.

A. is confusing

B. is painful

C. is expensive

D. is cheap

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 29. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.

A. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.

B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.

C. I often met my grandparents five years ago.

D. I have met my grandparents for five years.

Question 30.

I’m sure Linda was very upset when you left.

A. Linda may be very upset when you left.

B. Linda must be very upset when you left.

C. Linda must have been very upset when you left.

D. Linda could have been very upset when you left.

Question 31. “What have you done to my laptop, Jane?” asked Tom.

A. Tom asked Jane what she had done to his laptop.

B. Tom asked Jane what she has done to his laptop.

C. Tom asked Jane what had she done to his laptop.

D. Tom asked Jane what has she done to his laptop.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 32 to 36.

Culture is the lens with which we evaluate everything around us; we evaluate what is proper or improper, normal or abnormal, through our culture. If we are immersed in a culture that is unlike our own, we may experience culture shock and become disoriented when we come into contact with a fundamentally different culture. People naturally use their own culture as the standard to judge other cultures; however, passing judgment could reach a level where people begin to discriminate against others whose “ways of being” are different than their own-essentially, we tend to fear that which we do not understand.

Cultural diversity is important because our country, workplaces, and schools increasingly consist of various cultural, racial, and ethnic groups. We can learn from one another, but first we must have a level of understanding about each other in order to facilitate collaboration and cooperation. Learning about other cultures helps us understand different perspectives within the world in which we live and helps dispel negative stereotypes and personal biases about different groups.

In addition, cultural diversity helps us recognize and respect “ways of being” that are not necessarily our own, so that as we interact with others, we can build bridges to trust, respect, and understanding across cultures. Furthermore, this diversity makes our country a more interesting place to live, as people from diverse cultures contribute language skills, new ways of thinking, new knowledge, and different experiences.

(Adapted from https://www.purdueglobal.edu/)

Question 32. Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. How can we learn from one another?

B. How do people use own culture?

C. What is the function of culture?

D. Why is cultural diversity a “good thing”?

Question 33. The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.

A. others

B. people

C. evels

D. ways of being

Question 34. What is mentioned in paragraph 1 as the main reason for discrimination?

A. ontacting with a different culture

B. making judgment

C. immersing in a culture

D. valuating everything

Question 35. The word “dispel” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. discuss

B. realize

C. eliminate

D. contain

Question 36. Before we can learn from people from other cultures, we need to ___________.

A. form personal biases

B. understand one another

C. facilitate collaboration

D. have different perspectives

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.

Question 37. - Mai: "How fashionable a pair of trainers you have!”

- Nam: "_______."

A. Thanks for your compliment.

B. I know it's fashionable.

C. Do you want to know where I bought them?

D. Yes, of course.

Question 38. Paul and Daisy are discussing life in the future.

Paul: “I believe space travel will become more affordable for many people in the future.”

Daisy: “_______”

A. It is very kind of you to say so.

B. It doesn’t matter at all.

C. There’s no doubt about that.

D. I am sorry to hear that

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase that best fits each other numbered blanks

ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE IN SPORT

The first sports game was televised in the USA more than fifty years ago. Over the following decades television provided sports coaches with a wealth of information to analyse. By viewing recordings, they could study the number of passes received, tackles avoided, distances covered, speeds achieved and a host of ___(39)___ factors relating to the performance of their teams or athletes. Most of this data, though , consisted of bare statistics without any meaningful context. ___(40)___, the use of artificial intelligence (Al) is now enabling an alternative ___(41)___ to coaching. Al means the development of computer systems that can perform tasks usually associated with human intelligence, such as decision making.

Al doesn't get tired, has extraordinary powers of vision, particularly for objects moving at speed, and is capable of making complex ___(42)___ very quickly. Research has shown that, particularly over a whole day's worth of events, computers are just as reliable as human judges when it comes to giving gymnasts a score. However, computer scientist Henri Simeonson has been quick to warn about some potential difficulties. In particular, Simeonson is concerned that Al is vulnerable to hackers, ___(43)___ might be able to influence the outcome of a tournament.

Question 39.

A. a few of

B. every

C. other

D. a lot

Question 40.

A. However

B. for instance

C. therefore

D. though

Question 41.

A. entrance

B. level

C. approach

D. step

Question 42.

A. calculations

B. mistakes

C. progress

D. action

Question 43.

A. who

B. whom

C. that

D. which

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.

Environmentalists often fear that tourists will trample all over sensitive natural resource areas, but tourism may bring the needed and only economic incentives to help drive conservation, said Bynum Boley. Ecotourism and natural resource conservation already have a mutually beneficial relationship that is ideal for creating a sustainable partnership.

"Ecotourism destinations benefit in the form of enhanced tourism competitiveness from the protection of quality natural resources," he said. "Meanwhile, the conservation of these natural resources is increasingly valued since these pristine natural resources are the foundation of the ecotourism industry and the driver of all economic benefits associated with ecotourism."

Tourism is a $7.6 trillion global industry, provides 277 million jobs and is a primary income source for 20 of the world's 48 least-developed countries. It also subsidizes environmental protection and helps protect, conserve and value cultural resources that might otherwise be undervalued by the host community, Boley said. In the newspaper, Boley and co-author Gary Green said that despite past tension between the tourism industry and environmentalists, the two should team up as allies to fight off increasing conversion of land away from its natural state, Ecotourists not only provide a boost to the economy in such places, they can also motivate landowners into keeping the environment in its natural state instead of converting it into something unsustainable. They could also influence the public perception of conservation, Boley explained, which does not often favor environmental protection.

“The public has become increasing less prone to respond to environmental messages,” he said. “Economic messages are needed in order to attract the public's interest.” Too often, Boley and Green said, unique natural resource areas are converted into urban, suburban and agricultural developments without considering their ecotourism potential. In addition to the lost ecotourism revenue, there are a host of negative environmental consequences such as biodiversity loss, water and food shortages and the land being unable to mitigate the effects of climate change. These areas are not valued for their unique attributes or the valuable natural resources they provide, Green said, “so we lose them.” Tourists have historically been seen as having a negative impact on the environment. Critics complain that they violate fragile and threatened natural environments while contributing to greenhouse gases from the increased number of flights to these exotic and often remote locales. While these criticisms are justified, Boley and Green said responsible programs promote education of ecological conservation and environmental sustainability, fostering a greater understanding and appreciation of these exotic areas.

Question 44. What is the best title for the passage?

A. How to save the environmental resources

B. The development of ecotourism

C. Ecotourism - benefits and drawbacks

D. The consequences of ecotourism

Question 45. The word “pristine” is closest in meaning to _______.

A. touched

B. unspoiled

C. destroyed

D. spoiled

Question 46. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about Tourism?

A. provides 277 million jobs.

B. subsidizes environmental protection.

C. only develops in industrialized nations.

D. is a primary income source for 20 of the world's 48 least-developed countries.

Question 47. The word “perception” can be replaced by _______.

A. overview

B. concept

C. insight

D. awareness

Question 48. It can be inferred from the phrase “Economic messages are needed in order to attract the public's interest.” is _______.

A. People get less interested in issues related to economy.

B. People get more interested in issues related to environment.

C. People get more interested in issues related to economy.

D. People get less interested in issues related to environment.

Question 49. According to the passage, negative environmental outcomes _______?

A. reduce the effects of climate change.

B. provide more water and food.

C. have bad influence on the biodiversity.

D. boost local economy.

Question 50. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to _______.

A. these areas

B. critics

C. flights

D. tourists

Đáp án đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2024 môn Anh Hiệp Hòa 2

Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án	Câu	Đáp án
1	C	11	D	21	C	31	A	41	C
2	B	12	A	22	B	32	D	42	A
3	D	13	C	23	D	33	B	43	A
4	C	14	B	24	B	34	B	44	C
5	D	15	C	25	A	35	C	45	B
6	C	16	D	26	B	36	B	46	C
7	C	17	D	27	D	37	A	47	D
8	D	18	B	28	D	38	C	48	C
9	A	19	D	29	B	39	C	49	C
10	A	20	A	30	C	40	A	50	D

-/-

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