Tham khảo đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2021 môn Tiếng Anh được biên soạn dựa trên cấu trúc đề thi chính thức của Bộ Giáo dục. Qua tài liệu này, hy vọng các em đã có thể nắm vững kiến thức, chuẩn bị tốt cho kì thi sắp tới.
Đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2021 môn Anh Hồng Lĩnh lần 1
Chi tiết mã đề 101
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 5.
Coincident with concerns about the accelerating loss of species and habitats has been a growing appreciation of the importance of biological diversity, the (1).................. of species in a particular ecosystem, to the health of the Earth and human well-being. Much has been written about the diversity of terrestrial organisms, particularly the exceptionally rich life associated tropical rain¬forest habitats. Relatively little has been said, (2) .................., about diversity of life in the sea even though coral reef systems are comparable to rain forests in terms of richness of life.
An alien exploring Earth would probably (3) .................. priority to the planet's dominants - most distinctive feature - the ocean. Humans have a bias toward land (4) .................. sometimes gets in the way of truly examining global issues. Seen from far away, it is easy to realize that landmasses occupy only one-third of the Earth's surface. Given that two thirds of the Earth's surface is water and that marine life lives at all levels of the ocean, the total three-dimensional living space of the ocean is perhaps 100 times (5) .................. than that of land and contains more than 90 percent of all life on Earth even though the ocean has fewer distinct species.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 6 to 10.
History books recorded that the first film with sound was The Jazz Singer in 1927. But sound films, or talkies, did not suddenly appear after years of silent screenings. From the earliest public performances in 1896, films were accompanied by music and sound effects. These were produced by a single pianist, a small band, or a full-scale orchestra; large movie theatres could buy sound-effect machines. Research into sound that was reproduced at exactly at the same time as the pictures - called "synchronized sound" – began soon after the very first films were shown. With synchronized sound, characters on the movie screen could sing and speak. As early as 1896, the newly invented gramophone, which played a large disc carrying music and dialogue, was used as a sound system. The biggest disadvantage was that the sound and pictures could become unsynchronized if, for example, the gramophone needle jumped or if the speed of the projector changed. This system was only effective for a single song or dialogue sequence.
In the "sound-on-film" system, sound was recorded as a series of marks on celluloid which could be read by an optical sensor. These signals would be placed on the film alongside the image, guaranteeing synchronization. Short feature films were produced in this way as early as 1922. This system eventually brought us "talking pictures".
Question 6: The passage is mainly about the...................
A. research into sound reproduction.
B. development of sound with movies.
C. disadvantages of synchronized sound.
D. history of silent movies.
Question 7: According to the passage, films using sound effects were screened ...................
A. as early as 1922
B. in 1927
C. before 1896
D. as early as 1896
Question 8: The word "screenings" is closest in meaning to "....................................".
Question 9: Which of the following is not mentioned as a producer of sound to accompany movies?
A: a Jazz Singer
B. a single pianist
C. a gramophone
D. a small band
Question 10. The phrase "these signals" refers to.....................................
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 11 to 17.
The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in the mouth. The acid removes minerals from tooth enamel, allowing tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages remineralization and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth produce acid depends on the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of the plaque have been "primed" by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy, a regular dental hygiene program should be followed.
Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces the numbers of bacteria in the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay. It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is present in drinking water when teeth are forming, some fluoride is incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant to attack by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way, by promoting the remineralization of early carious lesions.
In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep your teeth healthy is to reduce your intake of sweet food. The least cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total amount determines how much harmful acid the bacteria in your saliva produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your saliva. Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth a long time. Also try to brush and floss your teeth after eating sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective.
Whenever possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples, celery sticks, etc., that scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush. Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed when eating sweets.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Deff and Ben Gok)
Question 11: What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. Good nutrition
B. Food with fiber
C. Ways to keep your teeth healthy
D. Fluoridization and cavities
Question 12: The word “it” refers to...................
A. dental floss
C. removal of plaque
Question 13: According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true EXCEPT...................
A. It consists of acid producing bacteria
B. It is not affected by eating sweets
C. It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing
D. It reduces the positive effect of saliva
Question 14: We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is...................
A. It strengthens tooth enamel
B. It stimulates saliva production
C. It makes teeth whiter
D. It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care
Question 15: What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
A. All sweets should be avoided.
B. Sweets should be eaten with care.
C. It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
D. Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.
Question 16: The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your saliva increases...................
A. with the amount of sweets you eat
B. with the number of times you eat sweets
C. if you eat sweets with your meals
D. if you eat sticky sweets
Question 17: The word "scrape off" is closest in meaning to...................
B. rub together with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 18: The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have becoming extinct have increased.
Question 19: Dams are used to control flooding, provide water for irrigation, and generating electricity for the surrounding area.
A.to control flooding
Question 20: It is an interested book which I bought at Ngoc Binh Store last Sunday
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 21: My father is less friendly than my mother.
A.My mother is not as friendly as my father.
B. My mother is less friendly than my father.
C. My father is more friendly than my mother.
D. My father is not as friendly as my mother
Question 22: “I bought these books last week”. He said
A. He said he bought these books last week.
B. He said he had bought those books the week before.
C. He said he had bought these books last week
D. He said he bought these books the week before.
Question 23: She probably buys this house next week.
A. She may buy this house next week
B. She must buy this house nexk week
C. She should buy next house next week.
D. She doesn’t have to buy this house next week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 24: You can stay in the flat for free, you pay the bills.
A. Whether you pay the bills or stay in the flat, it is free.
B. Without the bills paid, you can stay in the free flat.
C. Unless the flat is free of bills, you cannot stay in it.
D. Provided you pay the bills, you can stay in the flat for free.
Question 25: It is such an interesting book. I have read it three times
A. Such was the interesting book that I have read it three times.
B. Should the book be interesting, I have read it three times.
C. Such interesting was book that I have read it three times.
D. Only if it is an interesting book have I read it three times.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Tham khảo thêm: Đề thi thử tiếng anh 2021 có đáp án lần 2 của tỉnh Vĩnh Phúc
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 30. You like coffee, ..................?
A. don't you
B. didn't you
D. haven't you
Question 31: This is .................. second time I have ever eaten this food.
D. no article
Question 32: The whole world is waiting .................. a vaccine against Covid-19.
Question 33: Every day I spend two hours .................. English.
B to practise
Question 34: If I .................. you, I would spend more time learning English.
A. would be
C. will be
Question 35: She has not written to me since we .................. last time.
B. to meet
C. will meet
D. was meeting
Question 36: True Blood is my favourite TV series, .................. I don't have much time to watch it often.
Question 37: He will take the dog out for a walk .............
A. as soon as he finishes
B. when I was finishing dinner
C. until I finished dinner
D. shall have finished
Question 38: My favourite hobby is watching the work ....... by ShakeSpeare in the 20 century.
B. is writing
D. is written
Question 39. A ...........party was prepared to welcome the honoured guests.
Question 40: Jim ............ his best suit to make a good impression on his future in-laws.
A. took on
B. took off
C. put on
D. put off
Question 41: You'd better ..................a commitment to being a volunteer on a regular basis.
Question 42: People thought that maybe his novel might one day be turned into a ﬁlm and become a Hollywood ..............
Question 43. People have used coal and oil to .............electricity for a long time.
Question 44: My mother doesn'teye to eye with my father sometimes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word (s) in each of the following questions.
Question 45: This special offer is exclusive to readers of this magazine.
Question 46: The repeated commercials on TV distract many viewers from watching their favourite films.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 47: His boss has had enough of his impudence, and doesn't want to hire him any more.
Question 48: She was like a cat on hot bricks before her driving test.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 49: - Alice: “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment.”
- Peter: “ ..................”
A. It's rubbish. We shouldn't use it
B. Never mind
C. I can't agree with you more
D. Of course not
Question 50: Lucy is asking for permission to play the guitar at Pete's home.
- Lucy: “Is it all right if I play the guitar in here while you're studying?”.
- Pete: “..................”.
A. Oh, I wish you wouldn't.
B. Well, I'd rather not.
C. Well, actually, I'd prefer it if you didn't.
D. Well, if only you didn't.
Đáp án đề thi thử THPT Quốc gia 2021 môn Anh Hồng Lĩnh lần 1
Với nội dung chi tiết và đáp án đề thi thử THPT quốc gia 2021 môn Anh của trường THPT Hồng Lĩnh - Hà Tĩnh ở trên, hy vọng các em đã có thêm những kiến thức, kĩ năng làm đề mới cho môn học này. Chúc các em học tốt mỗi ngày.Cao Linh (Tổng hợp)